We recently completed a calendar of events for the next year for all Biola Alumni.
Events will regularly be posted on the alumni web page for your interest and review! As you’ll see, we’ve tried to offer something to appeal to everyone!
As a department, we often hear how much fun alumni have in gathering together with fellow alumni to reminisce about experiences, faculty, and friends from Biola. We have taken those opportunities a step further and added to it some of the best entertainment we can find in Southern California. I know you will be excited to experience with us a great selection of events and activities, for every age group and interest. And best of all, you can do it in a great environment with other alumni and friends from Biola!
We look forward to spending time with you—and your family and friends—in the coming months, at one or all of these activities.
Experiencing together “Alumni for Life”!
Rick
3 comments:
"So they are no longer two but one flesh" Matt 19:6, therefore; "God hates divorce" Mal 2:16.
Part 1 Man and Woman
In the beginning man and woman became "one" flesh (Eph 5:31-32) entering a covenant by oath (Eze 16:8) to one another (Hos 3:3) "cleaving" (Gen 2:24) both in body (1 Cor 6:16) and sharing a vestige of spirit (Mal 2:15)...
The "writ" of divorce or otherwise known as a “git" in Deut 24:1,
Wikipedia Encyclopedia;
”The laws of gittin only provide for a divorce initiated by the husband. However, the wife has the right to sue for divorce in a rabbinical court. The court, finding just cause, will require the husband to divorce his wife.” http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Get_%28divorce_document%29
Jesus speaking about divorce and said, “…in the beginning it was not so.” Matt 19:8b the introduction of marriage “the beginning” referring to Adam and Eve, by God. So, divorce did not occur till Moses Deut 24:1-4.
God created the woman for the man.
“So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them” Gen 1:27. This is given further clarity by 1 Cor 11:7, “For a man…he is the image and the glory of God; but the woman is the glory of the man.”
And again Paul states, “For the man is not of the woman but the woman of the man.” The woman was created from man’s rib and thus she was taken out of man “this is now, bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called Woman because she was taken out of the man” Gen 2:23.
1 Tim 2:12 states that a woman was to “be in silence” in the Church because Adam was born first then Eve, and Adam not deceived but Eve being deceived fell into transgression.
“And the Lord God said, ‘It is not good that man should be alone; I will make him a helper comparable to him’” Gen 2:18. This after Adam named all the animals God said that there was not found a “helper” comparable to him.
Both the woman was created “for” the man and “from” the man.
“The head of man is Christ and the head of the woman is the man and the head of Christ is God,” 1 Cor 11:3
A woman is still told to be "submissive to her husband in all things" and the man is still "head" of his wife Eph 5:23-31.
The women were also told to be in submission to their husband, “as also the Law says” in 1 Cor 14:34 referring to the "Law" of Moses.
Woman was created "for" the man, and "from" the man, but the man is "through" the woman by birth 1 Cor 11:2-14 and thus man should not boast in this but give thanks to the Father for we are not independent of one another.
"Law of the husband".
So, the punishment that a man is to “rule over her” in Gen 3:16 is still in effect today, this and the woman being "created" for the man put the woman under the “law of her husband,” spoken of in Rom 7:2-3 and 1 Cor 7:39 to "obey" him in all things Eph 5:24.
Only the women were called to be "widows" in order to remarry 1 Tim 5:9, 1 Cor 7:8-9, Rom 7:2-3, and 1 Cor 7:39 and not the men.
“A wife is bound by law as long as her husband lives; but if her husband sleeps, she is at liberty to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord” 1 Cor 7:39.
The woman submitting herself under her husband until death from the transfer of authority of the husband also spoken of in Num 30:2-16. The woman was unable to divorce her husband according to the Law of Moses. Also, we see the authority of the man to put away his wife when her conditions no longer is found favorable is initiated by the husband (sometimes overlooked by the elders) and not by the wife, Ex 21:11, Deut 21:14. If man forced himself on her or brought a bad name upon her he was charged not to divorce her all the days of his life Deut 22:19, 29 but she was not able to divorce him...
(“If a man finds a girl who is a virgin, who is not engaged and forces her and lies with her and they are discovered, then the man who lay with her shall give to the girl’s father fifty sheckles of silver, and she shall become his wife because he has violated her; HE CANNOT DIVORCE HER all the days of his life” Deut 22:28-29, as you can see here and Deut 21:19, “he cannot divorce her all his days” (the Law of Moses never stated a woman could put away or divorce her husband in any recourse of action). If a man neglects his second wife of food, clothing, or marriage rights he is to “set her free” or “let her go” and this without payment or selling her Ex 21:10-11. Now in these the woman was not allowed to “divorce” her husband but the man was commanded to “set her free.” Also, if the woman does not please him who he took captive as a wife, he shall “set her free” because he has “humbled her” Deut 21:14).
The woman is under the “law of her husband” as stated in Rom 7:2-3 but the man is NOT under the ‘law’ of his wife. The man is "bound" to her in marriage 1 Cor 7:26-27, until she breaks the marriage covenant Jer 31:31-34 allowing him to possibly be "released" or “loosed” 1 Cor 7:26-27 from his wife, to be able to marry another while his wife is still living Matt 19:9 and it is not charged as a "sin" 1 Cor 7:27, shown in Deut 24:1. Therefore; he is not committing “adultery” against her by remarrying another, but the woman is still bound to the “law” of her husband until he sleeps 1 Cor 7:39 or “dies” Rom 7:2-3.
“Marriage is honorable among all (believers and/or unbelievers), and the bed undefiled; but fornicators and adulterers God will judge” Heb 13:4.
Part 2 Law of Moses
Divorce was given by Moses in one scripture Deuteronomy 24:1-4.
“When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some uncleanness in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand and sends her out of his house, when she has departed from his house and goes and becomes another man’s wife, if the latter husband detests her and writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, or if the latter husband dies who took her to be his wife, then her former husband who divorced her must not take her back to be his wife after she has been defiled, for that is an abomination before the Lord, and you shall not bring sin on the land which the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance”.
Repeated again in Jer 3:1 and God said…
“They say, ‘If a man divorces his wife and she goes from him, and becomes another man’s may he return to her again? Would not that land be greatly polluted? But you have played the harlot with many lovers, “Yet return to Me,” says the Lord.’”
"Jealousy"... is as the "flames of a fire" Songs 8:6
God divorced Israel…
“Then I saw that for al the causes for which backsliding Israel had committed adultery, I had put her away and given her a certificate of divorce” Jer 3:8
Isaiah 50:1, “For your iniquities you have sold yourself and for your transgressions you mother has been Put Away (divorced)”.
“Behold, the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah, not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they did not continue…for this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put My laws in their mind and write them on their hearts” Jer 31:31-32.
“Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, though I was a husband to them, says the Lord” Jer 31:32
God will draw Israel back and take her again as his wife…
“Therefore, behold I will allure her; will bring her into the wilderness and speak comfort to her. I will give her vineyards from there…She shall sing there, as in the days of her youth, as in the day when she came up from the land of Egypt” Hosea 2:14-15.
And "all Israel will be saved" Rom 11:26.
In that day Israel shall call God, “My Husband” and no longer “My Master.”
Those days were told in Jer 2:2…
“…I remember you, the kindness of your youth, the love of your betrothal, when you went after Me in the wilderness, in a land that was not sown.”
And Israel will say…
“I will go and return to my first husband, for then it was better for me than now” Hos 2:7
Thus God will draw Israel back. God only asks that Israel “return” Jer 3:12 and “acknowledge you iniquity, that you have transgressed against the Lord you God” Jer 3:13.
God designed the Father to give away the daughter…
Examples, according to the Law of Moses and the traditions of their Jewish fathers…
The girl, while under the father roof and in her youth, is bound to her father until he gives her to another Deut 21:22 and Num 30:16.
“Now, if you will deal kindly and truly with my master, tell me. And if not, tell me, that I may turn to the right hand or to the left. Then Laban and Bethuel answered and said, ‘the thing comes from the Lord; we cannot speak to you either bad or good. Here is Rebekah before you; take her and go, and let her be your master’s son’s wife, as the Lord has spoken’” to Abraham’s servant for his son Isaac.
And, “Now Jacob loved Rachel; and he said, I will serve you seven years for Rachel your younger daughter.’ And Laban said, “It is better that I give her to you than that I should give her to another man. Stay with me” Gen 29:19.
And “ask me ever so much dowry and gift, and I will give according to what you say to me; but give me the young woman as a wife” in Gen chap 34 for the marriage of defiled Dinah as Shechem spoke to her father and her brothers.
In some cases, if a woman was separated from her husband (either by divorce, widowhood, or adultery) she usually returned back to her fathers house for him to take care of her Lev 22:13, Judges 19:2.
Man is head over his wife; he was given authority over her from the father’s authority and if she made any oath or swear by anything in the day that he heard it he could nullify it or confirm it, Numbers 30:2-16.
The “bridal price,” or called latter by Jesus for the Church (His bride) the “purchase price” that was paid for as Jesus became “betrothed” to the Church to enter into the marriage supper of the Lamb. In the same manner the man paid for his wife by her father in Deut 22:13, Deut 22:29, Ex 22:17 “he shall surely pay the bride price for her to be his wife” while she was still in her youth living under her father roof.
Gen 34 set by Jacob and her brothers, Gen 29:19 of the father “giving” away his daughter Gen 24:51, and many, many, more examples of the father’s role in the marriage process of “his” daughter’s marriage, “but any vow of a widow or a divorced woman, by which she has bound herself, shall stand against her” Num 30:9.
The father of the girl had the authority to refuse the wedding/marriage Ex 22:17, but the father of the young man (“shall leave his father and mother”) was not able to refuse the marriage, Judges 14:4.
For the Gentiles…
For those who do not live under their fathers house or do not go according to the traditions of the Jewish fathers…
We are called to abstain from “sexual immorality” Acts 15:29. And because of “sexual immorality” we are told to… “let every man have his own wife and every woman her own husband 1 Cor 7:2. That is why “it is better to marry than to burn with passion”, and the young women were told to keep their “virginity” vs. 25, and remain single unless they were past their “prime” and it was said to “allow then to marry” if they thought they “ought” to do and it was not “sin” 1 Cor 7:36. But if they have the “gift” of “self control” (both the men and the women 1 Cor 7:7, 37) it was better to remain unmarried to serve the Lord without “distraction” 1 Cor 7:35 and serve the Lord “whole heartedly”.
John the Baptist told King Harod “it is not lawful for you to have your brother’s wife,” for this would be exposing his “brothers nakedness” Lev 18:16 thus it would be considered “sexual immoral.” And that is why John the Baptist, a Jew, told Kind Harod, a Gentile, to put her away. For he used the Law of Moses to explain what was “sexual immorality” and so shall we Gentiles understand what is sexual immoral by the Law of Moses.
Deut 25:5-10 is not a law to say what “sexual immorality” is, but what was commanded by the brother of a Jew. We do not have to marry our brother’s wife if the older one died or the woman of the dead husband to rise up another. For this is not a "sexual immorality" case, but a command to the Jews to raise a “seed” of the dead older brother “that his name may not be blotted out of Israel”. But the Gentile women who have had their husband “sleep” are allowed whoever they would like 1 Cor 7:39-40 but, "only in the Lord".
Although we have “liberty” in Christ, and died to the Law of Moses, we are to still uphold the “righteous requirements of the Law” Rom 8:4 shown to love God and love your neighbor.
Part 3 Covenants
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia;
This article is about covenants in general. For more specific uses, see Covenant (disambiguation).
A covenant, in its most general sense, is a solemn promise to engage in or refrain from a specified action.
More specifically, a covenant, in contrast to a contract, is a one-way agreement whereby the covenanter is the only party bound by the promise. A covenant may have conditions and prerequisites that qualify the undertaking, including the acations of second or third parties, but there is no inherent agreement by such other parties to fulfill those requirements. Consequentially, the only party that can break a covenant is the covenanter.
Deut 24:2 says she “defiled” herself, and was told she “commit adultery” against her husband when she married another Deut 24:2 still being "bound to the law of her husband" until death Rom 7:1-3 understood by those who understood the Law of Moses Rom 7:1.
The only thing that frees a man to marry another woman while his first wife is still living is if she has broken the covenant by being unfaithful to her husband… “Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, though I was a husband to them, says the Lord” Jer 31:32
The bible speaks about Covenants:
Gal 3:15 it says, “Brethren, I speak in the manner of men: Thought it is only a man’s covenant, yet if it is confirmed, no one annuls or adds to it” as to say, “and this I say, that the law, which was four hundred and thirty years later, cannot annul the covenant that was confirmed before by God, in Christ, that it should make the promise of no effect.”
For the woman who… “Forsakes the companion of her youth; and forgets the covenant of her God” Proverbs 2:17, God no longer looks at them as two but one, “yet she is your companion and your wife by covenant” Malachi 2:14 and 15.
Israel bound them selves by covenant to the Lord, “So Moses came and told the people all the words of the Lord and all the judgments. And all the people answered with one voice and said, ‘All the words which the Lord has said we will do.’” And Moses took half the blood and put it in basins and half the blood he sprinkled on the altar. Moses took the Book of the covenant and read it and they said, “All that the Lord has said we will do and be obedient.” And Moses took the blood, sprinkled it on the people, and said, ‘Behold, the blood of the covenant which the Lord has made with you according to all these words.”
“Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them” Gal 3:10. This was said about those who would obey only some of the Laws of Moses and not all... “All the words which the Lord has said we will do” and thus it was written in the Book of Covenants Ex 24:1-8.
God to fulfill his promise, “thus I establish My covenant with you: Never again shall all flesh be cut off by the waters of the flood; never again shall there be a flood to destroy the earth. And God said: This is the sign of the covenant which I make between Me and you, and every living creature that is with you, for perpetual generations: I will set My rainbow in the cloud…”
So when Israel was not faithful to their covenant oaths they were guilty of ‘breaking the covenant’ to their God and when Israel did not return God gave her a certificate of Divorce but when Judah returned God remained faithful to her Jer 3:10.
God made a covenant with David and will remain faithful to his Covenant with David Ps 89:30-37 and will bring Israel back and marry her again and make a “new Covenant” with her Hosea 2:13-23 and Jer 31:31-33 an everlasting Covenant.
God says for his covenant with David, though man is faithless God is faithful for he can not deny Himself. Though man broke their covenant with God in at Mt. Heron in giving of the 10 commandments, God remind faithful to His promises with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and will restore Israel and David will have a King on the thrown forever.
Part 4 Gospel Accounts
Jesus spoke about Divorce in the Gospel accounts of Matt 5:31-32, Matt 19:1-9, Mark 10:1-12 and Luke 16:18. Jesus did not say what was “lawful” but what was “adultery” in remarriage, and what was NOT (Matt 19:9) through the Law (to condemn their own perceived righteousness).
Matt 19:9
“But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife if not for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery. And whoever marries her who is divorced (or put away) commits adultery.”
Matt 5:31-32
“But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery”.
So, in both these cases if the woman was ‘known’ to be guilty of ‘sexual immorality’ or not, she would be committing adultery by marrying another man while her husband still lived even if she was the 'innocent' party.
Jesus said every man who divorced a woman and remarried, committed adultery- if he did not divorce her for sexual immorality Matt 19:9. This give understanding, according to the Law of Moses, that it would not be ‘sin’ or 'adultery' for a man if he was “loosed” from his wife because she committed sexual immorality in the marriage to marry another 1 Cor 7:27. But a Christian man is not to "leave" (put her away) 1 Cor 7:11b his wife, but to always allow her to return (Jer 3:10).
Any woman found guilty of committing adultery was to be stoned to death (John 8:1-) according to the Law of Moses.
This is not saying that only the men where divorcing their wives in Israel at the time Jesus, for in Mark (a letter to the Gentiles) 10:10-12 he has quoted Jesus telling the Disciples in private that, “and a wife is not to put away her husband and marry another.” We know unbelieving women in Corinth (1 Cor 7:15) were shortly latter divorcing their husbands. Romans were occupying territories in Israel at this time. We also know the Jew's were not properly expediting the divorce process by the Pharisees asking Jesus if a man can put away his wife for "any reason"? Matt 19:3. So it would be possible that some Jews or Samaritan women were divorcing their husbands to marry another, “Jesus said to her, ‘You have well said ‘I have no husband,’ for you have had five husbands and the one whom you now have is not your husband; in that you have spoke truly.”
The Book of Mark seems to have a “Gentile” message.
“This may be why Mark omitted a number of items that would not have been meaningful to Gentiles, such as the genealogy of Christ, fulfilled prophecy, references to the Law, and certain Jewish customs that are found in the other gospels. Mark interpreted Aramaic words (3:17, 5:41, 7:34, 15:22) and used a number of Latin terms in place of their Greek equivalents (4:21, 6:27, 12:14, 42; 15:15, 16, 39).” I believe this is the reference since the original publishing page was torn out…Page 1156 “The New Open Bible” Nelson Bibles 1997 published by Thomas Nelson Publishers out of Nashville, Tennessee. New King James Version
.
Jesus was letting the Disciples know what was "adultery" - all the way around in Mark 10:10-12.
Part 5 Letter to the Romans
Rom 7:1-4
"Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives? For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of husband. So then if, while husband lives she marries another man she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from the law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man. Therefore, my brethren, you also have become dead to the law through the body of Christ, that you may be married to another to Him who was raised from the dead, that we should bear fruit to God."
To those Christian Jew's who understood the teaching of Deut 24:1-4, knew by verse 4 that when she married the second husband after a proper divorce the woman was now "defiled", not because she tried to marry again the 1st husband, this has not occurred yet. It was told that if this “defiled” woman would return to her 1st husband then it would be considered an "abomination" before the Lord, for nowhere else in scripture is Rom 7:2-3 taught. Rom 7:2-3 is not a new teaching by the Apostles and no where it was mentioned by Jesus but only when Jesus gave proper understanding of the Law of Moses in Deut 24:1-4. The woman can not marry another until the “death” of her spouse, yet becoming a "widow" 1 Tim 5:9.
Part 6 Letter to the Corinthian Church
Commentary Verse 8-40
-"But I say to the unmarrieds…"
Unmarrieds is used in 1 Cor 7:8, 11, 32, 34. Although it is said in verse 11 that the woman who is divorced from her husband to "remain unmarried" Paul is not addressing this group here. When Paul is addressing the "unmarrieds" he is referring to those who are eligible for marriage and not those who are to "remain unmarried". Concerning remarriage it is said here that the woman is to be a widow or in the next verse if she has been divorced from her husband to “remain unmarried or reconcile”. The remarriage of a man is stated in 1 Cor 7:27 in which he needs to be “loosened” according to what the Law of Moses in order not to commit adultery against his wife when he remarries.
-"and to the widows…"
Widows are a group that is considered a group by themselves Numbers 30:9, 1 Tim 5:9-16, and Acts 6:1.
Paul writes latter he desires all widows to remain unmarried (vs. 40), but explains latter in 1 Tim 5:14 he desires “young widows” to marry and bear children when they have a desire to marry (burning with passion). And it is said for a woman to be considered for the widows fund if she had walked a godly walk by, “becoming the wife of only one husband” (and this in her lifetime while only one husband lived) 1 Tim 5:9. But a man who is an overseer is only to have one wife at the same time, “husband of one wife” 1 Tim 3:2-3 this does not use the Greek word “to become” at the beginning of the sentence like 1 Tim 5:9. This theme is repeated all thought scripture.
Paul said to, “Those unmarrieds and the widows” it is better to marry than to burn with passion, still here it tells of women being widows and not the men who wives have passed away.
This is simply stating if she married another man while her first husband was still living she is no longer able to receive the monies for being a widow 1 Tim 5:9 and “called an adulteress” of Rom 7:2-3. So, although for a woman to marry another man, commit adultery against him, and then ask forgiveness…there is still penalties life lasting.
For the “priests” (Lev 21:7) the sons of Aaron were commanded not to, “take a wife who is a harlot or a defiled woman, nor shall they take a woman divorced from her husband; for the priest is holy to his God”. Although an Israelite was allowed to take a divorced woman Deut 24:2 and marry her and not be stoned to death for “committing adultery”, a priest was told not marry her but to uphold purity. So it is possible that not to be married in polygamy 1 Tim 3:2 could be a “higher requirement” of the “overseer” or at least addressed not to marry a "divorced woman" where this might be coming from.
-"It is good for them if they remain even as I am…"
Said (vs.1b) not to "touch a woman" and (vs39b) for the widows to remain unmarried, the idea coming from "because of the present distress" (vs. 26) and a freedom to serve Christ more effectively without being bound (vs. 27 and vss.31 and 32) and vs. 37-38. Now this is not to get confused with a woman who is separated from her husband to "remain unmarried" in 1 Cor 7:11 for this is a "command" and by the Lord. The “eunuchs” told in Matt 19:11-12 have a similar standing as those who “have the gift” to remain unmarried 1 Cor 7:7 while not burning with passion, only a few people have this gift and with this gift they are to serve God more effectively without “distraction”.
-"but if they cannot exercise self-control…"
Speaking those who may fall into temptation because of the “sexual immorality” being so ramped in their culture and in their Church (1 Cor 5:1, 1 Cor 6:15-16 1 Cor 7:2). According to Ex 22:16-17 a man who entices a woman to sleep with him should marry her and this with the blessing of her father.
-"let them marry."
In verse 1 in this Chapter we see Paul was answering the letter by the "elders" in this church what should be done in the Church for certain situations. This may not have only been instructing those singles to promote marriage between them but to help the Church Elders to allow this and not to hinder them
-"For it is better to marry than to burn with passion."
“But each one is tempted when he is drawn away by his own desires and enticed. Then when desire has conceived it gives birth to sin, and sin, when it is full grown brings forth death” James 1:14-15.
-"Now to the married…"
This next part is written to those who are "married" for formerly it addressed those "unmarrieds" and widows. This may seem obvious but I don't want you to confuse the fact that Paul is not giving remarriage directions in verse 8 but is addressing those who have never been married before or a widow.
-"Charge, yet not I but the Lord…"
Paul makes two things clear; first this was a "charge" from the Lord-a spoken command from the Lord but to a willing Christian who is willing to obey those things in the Lord. And secondly, this was the Lord giving direction to the Church and not Paul himself.
1 Cor 7:12, 26b, and 40 Paul makes it clear this is his own opinion/instruction as someone who is guided by the Holy Spirit.
I would presume Paul is giving direct instruction to the Gentile Church like when he was giving instruction to the Church of the Galatians Gal 1:12.
-"A wife is not to separate from her husband.”
Titus 2:5 it tells the young women to be obedient to their own husbands that the word of God may not be blasphemed.
God told man (and woman) not "separate" what God has joined together. This is the same "separate" word in the Greek. We can see that after a separation this woman was considered "unmarried" by verse 11, in which she is told to remain is that state. Also, we can see that the way "separate" is used in 1 Cor 7:15 (woman also separating from the man) that this was done by the unbeliever without "biblical" reference (for the believer would not be presumed to commit adultery or any such action against their unbelieving spouse to give them reason to separate). So when it says a wife is not to "separate" this does not mean it was done because the man committed "sexual immorality" in the marriage but presumed by this she had no right to cause this divorce between the two. I believe this also shows that since it does not tell the woman not to "leave" her husband (as vs. 11b) that a woman could not “put away” or “leave” her husband for any biblical reason. She was to remain unmarried if she was not able to reconcile with her husband.
-"But if she does separate…"
I believe this would be better translated, "But if she is separated." My looking at the Greek word does not mean that she will in the future divorce her husband but if the case has already happened.
-"let her remain unmarried…"
She is unmarried at this point though she is bound to the "law" of her husband. She has only two options either remain unmarried (till the death or sleep of her husband) or reconcile...
-"or reconcile with her husband."
I find that since the Lord says she is to reconcile after she is given the option to "remain unmarried" is stressing the importance of the woman to "remaining unmarried" if she does not go back with her husband.
-"And the husband is not to leave his wife.”
This Greek word was used to show even though the man had a thought ‘proper biblical reasoning’ behind it (as verse 12 and 13 “leave”) he was not to leave her under any circumstances (as long as she was willing to remain in the marriage Jer 3:10).
This "leave" in the Greek could be better translated "dismiss" or "remit"(taken from the exact Greek word is used in Luke 11:42 and Mark 2:7). In which the Scribes questioned; “Who is able to remit sins?” and “these things you must do and those not to leave aside” speaking about the Pharisees missing judgment and the love of God. This would be presumed that, as showing with 1 Cor 7:12-13, that the Christian man believed he had a biblical reference point to put her away but in a Greek or Corinthian type of divorce (not a Jewish traditional type of “Writ” or “Get” divorce).
-"But to the rest, I say not the Lord…"
I believe this is Paul telling that the rest of this instruction after this is to those Christians finding themselves in these next set of predicaments or "cases" in which Paul is giving instruction here as he also does in 1 Cor 7:25 and verse 40. Paul in his humility, though he states he has all power to impose on the Christians, lets them know that this was from him putting himself under the authority of Jesus.
-"If a brother has a wife who does not believe and she is willing to live with him, let him not leave her."
This, again, is the word "leave" in the Greek to be translated "dismiss" as verse 11b. The point here is she is "willing" to remain, which we will see latter the opposite of an "unwilling" husband and wife in verse 15.
-"And a woman who has a husband, who does not believe if he is willing to live with her, let her not leave him."
The woman does not have a biblical right to "divorce" her husband but some people in the Church thought they were to put away all unclean people from them and this would include a woman if she was able to divorce her husband by the laws of the land. It is hard to read into this sentence. Although the Gentile woman were told they did not have to obey the Law of Moses in regards to the law's of a woman, they probably thought if the Christian woman was willing to "remain unmarried" as long as he lived she would be able to "leave" her husband and would not be "committing adultery" by divorcing him, if he was "unclean". And more than that but a responsibility to divorce their unbelieving spouse. Interesting Paul says in verse 14 if you had to leave your spouse you would have a responsibility to leave your child as well (remember verse 14 is not a scripture of Paul trying to teach them about the salvation of a child but rather the holiness of the child because of the unbelievers sanctification).
-"For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband; otherwise the children would be unclean, but now they are Holy."
If the spouses were "unclean" the children would be "unclean" and they would be forced to leave them as well...
The Gentile men and women were obviously not all practicing the Law of Moses, still some not being circumcised 1 Cor 7:17-19. But Paul was speaking to both the Jew's and the Gentiles in the local Synagogue's Acts 18:4. I would at first suppose that the "believers" of 1 Cor 7:12-13 were divorcing their "unbeliever" spouses because of what happened in Ezra chap 9-10 but the Jew's were told to divorce only those to whom the Lord previously spoke to them about separating from the Land of Israel when the Jew's finally took over by war. God said don't marry them so you will not worship their God's Neh 13:23-27, of 1 Kings 11:2 and Deut 7:1-4 (the lands that they went into possess "the promises land" Hittites, Girgashites, Amorites, Canaanites, Perizzites, Hivites and the Jebusites – which you see are of the same of Ezra 9:1, but of the other lands (not given of the promises land they were allowed to inter-marry Joshua 1:2-5). But in other Law's of Moses the Jew's were allowed to marry Gentiles (apart from the groups previously spoken about in Ezra 9:1, like those women taken in war else where Deut 21:10-13 they were allowed to marry them and keep the people alive Deut 21:11 if the territory took the peace offering but if not all men and women who knew a man were to die that were of the "cities that were very far from you" verse 15 but of the people of the given promise land were all to die both men and women verse 16. Some of those who not have known a man intimately Numbers 31:17-18 of these were Midianite virgins (Exodus 2:16-21 Moses marrying a Midianite thought the women of Midianite caused God's wrath on Israel Num 31:16 from the story of Num 25:5-6). This is not those of Ezra 9:1 (the people of those lands, Canaanites, Hittites, Perizzites, Jebusites, Ammonites, Moabites, Egyptians, and Amorites), though it was better to marry one of their own people Lev 21:13 and the story in Judges 14:3, Gen 34:14 (of their women to those who are not circumcised) but Jacob sons said, "on this condition…if you become one as we are, if every male of you is circumcised".
-"But if the unbeliever separates, separate.”
This is to show a contrast of what was previously believed to believers who were married to non-believers from verses 12-13. And likewise verse 16 will show an explanation of the command Paul gives here, as verse 14 did for 12-13.
This again showing that no "sexual immorality" was done in the marriage by the believer, the believer is told by Paul to "separate" to an unbeliever who is un-"willing" (in opposition to what Paul commanded the Christian to remain married to the unbeliever who was "willing" to remain married in verses 12-13). This is important, for if the marriage was already divorced and the believer had no further contact with the unbeliever there would be no need for Paul to give further instruction to "separate" for peace sake.
-"Not bondage…"
This would be better translated, "Not becoming into bondage..." This was then supposed by the Christian that they were now bound to stay married to the "unbeliever" to keep the marriage together by the command by Jesus of God for the thought of, "man is not to separate what God joined together". Remember the first group of zealots in the Church thought that those believers married to unbelievers were "commanded" to "leave" their unbelievers verse 14, so these zealots in the opposite argument taught they must remain married to the unbeliever even if they were unwilling to do so, causing the lack of "peace".
Since they are still married Paul is giving them permission to separate from the marriage to an “unwilling” unbelieving partner who wants out of the marriage and Paul is not giving them permission to remarry.
-"the brother or sister in such matters."
Paul also addresses the men as "brother" again in 1 Cor 7:29 and speaking to men in the Church who are still married to their wives. If you notice Paul does not address the believers as "believers" in all of 1 Cor 7:12-16 although Paul speaks about "unbelievers" used in both gender types. I say this so you can get an understanding why Paul uses this wordage and it does not necessarily mean that they are still married or they have already been divorced by Paul calling them brothers and sisters rather than "husbands" or "wives". Paul does referrer to them again as "husband" and "wives" in verse 16 I think to show before the divorce the believer (in verse 15b) is not in "bondage” to remain married to them any longer using this reasoning as 1 Cor 7:14 was the reasoning they are to remain married to their unbelieving spouses (before the divorce as well).
This does not give the believers the freedom or right to remarry but only Paul is giving them permission to let the divorce go through which the unbeliever divorced the believer. Yes, the law of divorce was given to initiate a divorce to remarry another but this is not what Paul is doing, but Paul is, by Grace, allowing the divorce from the unbeliever or at least to divorce the "unwilling" partner.
The "in" word is the word that could be translated as "into" or to go in something.
-"in but peace called us God."
Paul uses the Greek word "us" meaning this was referring to "all" Christians everywhere in their dealing with unbelievers. We are to strive to live at peace with them for a way that seems right with God leaves both peace with God and man. It is said, “And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men” Luke 2:52.
-“What for do you know O wife if you will save your husband and what know you husband if the wife you will save?”
Paul was reasoning with the believers on why Paul is allowing them to "separate" from the unbelievers. So, this is pre-divorce, and the divorce has not occurred yet. Paul is definitely not saying here, they are free to remarry someone else but why to let them go and not to hold on tightly.
-"But…"
…Continuing on with this thought.
-"as God has distributed to each one as the Lord has called each one, so let him walk. And so I ordain in all the churches."
Paul tells them the main part of this, to “walk in the calling you were called” 1 Cor 7:17. That is the main point that Paul is going to address in 1 Cor 7:15b-24, God called you to the situation that you are in therefore “Each one in the calling in which he was called in this remain” 1 Cor 7:20.
You get the feeling (also vs. 24) of, if God has called you while married to the unbeliever, stay married to them and if they divorced you and caused you to remain unmarried then stay in that state, for God called you and in there remain. Luke 2:37 who being a widow for 84 years remained faithful to serving God in the temple, yes she could have remarried but she chose the better (1 Cor 7:38). God will give you the strength and give you a way of escape from all sins if he called you not to marry another causing ‘adultery’.
Continued in verse 25…
-“Concerning but the …”
This is the same Greek words used earlier in 1 Cor 7:1, meaning Paul was addressing one of the “direct” questions asked in the letter to Paul.
-“Virgins”
This is interesting, since this part is addressing the virgins at then end of this address in verse 26 Paul says, “good for a man so to be.” Now it does go on in the next verse to speak directly to “men” since Paul talks about being loosed from a wife. Paul also says if you are “being” or “been” “loosed for a wife, not seek a wife” I think this is directly related only to those who have been married before and not men who are still considered “virgins” who have never been married before. So, the “virgins” at the end of verse 27, I believe are both directed to men and women who are TRULY virgins and not “burning with passion” who have “lacked self control” in the past as of 1 Cor 7:7-9. So 1 Cor 7:7-9 are probably those who Paul was originally speaking about when he said in 1 Cor 7:1-2 because of “fornications” let every man have his own wife and every wife her own husband.
Now, I will not only say because of verse 25-27 can I come to the conclusion that the “virgins” are used for both men and women who have never had sexual relations before but I will use the “rest” of this Chapter to show it as well.
-For the rest of the “Virgins” commentary is located at the end of this article.-
-“Have you been bound to a wife? Not seek release. Have you been released from a wife? Not seek a wife.”
When Paul says “concerning” virgins, “I think then this good to be because of the present necessity, that it is good for a man so to be,” he is going to be speaking to all (both man and woman) who are eligible to marry. Paul often in his letters (1 Cor 7:29) addresses the church as “brothers” or “men” when speaking in a general fashion to everyone in the church, giving respect to the men as headship and leaders in the Church 1 Tim 3:2, 5, 12 (a woman to remain silent in the church 1 Cor 14:32-34 and “learn in silence” 1 Tim 2:11, and to remain submissive to the man 1 Tim 2:12-14, and Eph 5:23-31, Col 3:18). Now, since this letter has a lot to deal with men and woman separately with their own set of rules and regulations I think Paul makes it very clear (in where it is not know to be a General rule of thumb) to speak to the men and women, independently. But since this letter is ‘over all’ addressed to the leaders or “men” of the church, as the rest of the letter of 1 Corinthians, you will see Paul use “men” 1 Cor 1:25 or “brethren” 1 Cor 26) (which you can see in 1 Cor 7:29) to state the obvious to all people. Remember “men” and “brethren” can be used interchangeably mostly, thought this entire letter. And Paul was answering questions the “leaders” (men) had about the church from verse 1.
Paul addressing “virgins” in verse 25 and before addressing the “virgins” in doctrine, he speaks about men who are married or have been “loosed” from a “wife”. Paul is saying to all “if you are available to marry” than it is “not sin” to get married (referring to the rest of the groups not yet, specifically mentioned. But he was speaking individually about this so not to get the congregation confused in which group he is addressing (that is why Paul addresses the “rest” in verse 12) and who is free to remarry or marry and what is “sin”. Paul goes on in verse 32-38 to finally given the doctrine of “virgins” the Church as originally asking about. So, what Paul is doing is giving the Church the proper perspective first then telling them what to do. It is like explaining why the doctrine then telling them the doctrine. Paul when he gives direction by himself and “not the Lord” Paul always gives reasons for his teachings (1 Cor 7:14, 16, 29-31) and also the latter in giving direction to the church in why to eat meat and why not to.
Those who come in the last days and say it is a sin and forbid people to get married, 1 Tim 4:3 or think “because of the present distresses” it would be acting foolishly, irresponsibly, or selfishly. Latter Paul addresses for the “virgins” to make a ‘self-examination’ thinking they are behaving “unfair” to their flesh because they are “past their prime” let them marry (talking to the congregation and those in leadership) let them make there own decisions and do not hinder them. But if the ‘self-examination’ verse 37 you believe you have authority over your own flesh, then refrain from marrying if you can remain in your “virginity” (“but because of fornications let every man have his own wife”) but if become “one flesh” 1 Cor 6:16 with another, and they are a fellow Christian, they should marry one another for it is better to marry than to “burn with passion” and you became one with the other already, becoming “one flesh” for the Lord says, “do you not know that the two shall become one flesh” talking about sexual immorality with a harlot. Not that you are required to marry but as Paul says in 1 Cor 7:2-3 because of sexual immorality and the guidance of Scripture of Ex 22:16 guiding the man to take the responsibility to request the girl for marriage (if under fathers roof Num 30:16 than to the father, if not under the fathers roof than either to the man who has taken her as a father (Esther 2:7) or her independently).
Continue on verse 39
-"…A wife is bond by law…"
This "law" is not the Law of Moses (previously explained in the explanation of Rom 7:1,4-6 for Paul used the illustration of the wife to explain being bound to the law and what is needed to be set free) but this is the "law of husband" which she is bound to for the life not given the ability to divorce her husband by God and being made for the man. This would be to a Christian man or an unbeliever alike. You are bound to him being put under him. Though after a divorce Numbers 30:8 you are no longer “subject” to obey him, therefore you are bound by “law” to him and he is still considered tied by law only, causing you to “commit adultery” if you were to be married to another man Mark 10:11 (by the use of “against her” showing ties still between the man and woman or the use of the word “bound”).
-"as long as her husband lives.."
Coming from Deut 24:1-4 stated also in Rom 7:2-3 to those who “knew” the Law of Moses verse 4-6.
-"…but if her husband sleeps…"
The Greek word here is "sleeps" and not dies as many translations write. This does not mean that because 1 Cor 7:15 said the Christian brother or sister are not in bondage to that situation that they are free to marry another for a woman is still “bound to the Law” of her husband until he “dies” to an unbeliever, for she would still be committing “adultery” against him still. Also, if a woman remarries another man (according to Deut 24:2-4) he is free to marry another since she has committed “adultery” by marrying another and he can not return to her anymore.
-"But she is happier if she remains as she is according to my judgment and I think I also have the Spirit of God."
This is not a command but like 1 Cor 7:35 to do what is “fitting” and “proper”. Paul also ends it with saying he has the Spirit of God (also vs. 26b) and God called and appointed as an Apostle.
God gave Paul permission to give commands to the church, in which if someone does not obey we are to withdraw from them (1 Cor 5:1, Matt 18:15-18, 2 Thess 3:6, 1 Tim 6:3, and 1 Cor 11:1-2). Not to hate him as an enemy but admonish him as a brother. And Paul congratulates them for following the traditions and commands they delivered to the church 1 Cor 11:1-2.
In this 1 Corinthian Chapter 7 Paul speaks of “permissions” but please don’t make permissions-commands, nor commands to be taken as permissions.
God bless you,
love
-“Virgins” continued…
First of all, since Paul is addressing groups of people in the letter I will address these groups to show both man and woman is addressed in each group. First, “to those” “widows” and “unmarried’s (not virgins) who lacked self control in the past were suggested to marry rather than burn with passion. Secondly, “to those married” in verse 10-11 both men and women. Thirdly, “to those” being married to unbelievers who were both willing and unwilling, and now finally, the “virgins”.
Paul was not addressing the men who were “engaged” to virgins, that would be first of all to few a group and you see the ‘betrothed’ used more in the Jewish culture and not in Corinth with both Gentiles and Jew’s with much sexual immorality going on (1 Cor 5:1, 6:14-16, 7:2-3 “because of fornication” and 7:7-9 those “burning with passion” for having a lack of self control. Or was Paul addressing those father’s who had “virgin” daughters for you can see the “unmarried’s” in 7:9 had power to marry on their own accord without seemed “permission” of the father, also from verse 37 “concerning his Own will” let him do what he desires.
Many times in Scripture when a group of people (both men and women) are addressed Paul will use the Greek word “autou” like 1 Cor 8:10 showing (although may mean a ‘male’ influence in the word) Paul is meaning “them” in a general since. Yes, there may be other words in Greek to show a woman is spoken for in (Strong’s 846) but this does not neglegate the fact of sometime Paul uses this for a group spoken to.
Now, we can partially see this for when the “virgins” is addressed in verse 25 he latter says it is “good” for a man “so to be”. This “so to be” means to remain in the state that is or supposed.
Paul is speaking to the “men” first of all in this or addressed as the primary reader or written to for when Paul speaks about marriage in the rest of this Chapter he says, “Those but I say brothers…” then it goes on speaking about a “wife” and latter in verse 32 it says, “to be” again in the Greek. It then goes on and say in the very next sentence, “The unmarried” and speak about being married to wives so you can see this main or addressed is primarily the men though it could be used for both men and women alike (in some parts, like the time is short so those…
Then it goes on to say, “Different are the wife and the virgin” in verse 34 now since “virgin” is not used in the sentences of men about being single this does not prove that “virgins” is used only for the women here. If you look and see that the men were the ones who Paul was speaking about from verse 26-33 or addressing using the “man” for the examples (which is done in most of Paul’s teaching though it is used and addressed for “all” both men and women) there was no need to say “virgins” in verse 33 but only “unmarried’s” like it does of the women in the next sentence of verse 34, “The unmarried, cares…”
So, in verse 35 it says to both the “unmarried’s” or “virgin men-and-women”, this and for the of “yourself” not to put a snare before you. So Paul is starting out in verse 36 talking or speaking about both men and woman who are “unmarried” more than that but those who have not had “sexual relations” of 1 Cor 7:8-9.
But the real proof is easily shown in verse 37 in talking of opposition to verse 36 it says if “he” or “they”, “not having necessity” over their “own will”. Paul says about virgins getting married that if the man has authority over his own will then the virgin does not need to marry. Do you not realize Paul is talking about the “own will” about the “virgins who have authority over their own will. It is about making a personal choice to marry or not for both the man and the woman like previously said in verse 33-34 to serve the Lord without distraction. It is not talking about a father who has a daughter, for why would “authority” over his own will have anything to do with a “burning passion”? “Own” is referring to the person to make the individual choices. Yes, in the Jewish Law and Culture the Father gave away the bride and had authority over his daughter getting married Ex 22:16-17 but Paul was addressing “questions” in this letter in those who did not know what to do or there was a turmoil in some say what decision should be done about these groups. They knew the “time was short” and so thought the virgins should stay unmarried but some thought they “being past their prime” verse 36 should marry. Remember it said in the last days some shall tell others to refrain from marriage and other things but in the Epistle it suggests all things are from the Lord and those things would not be “sin” 1 Tim 4:3.
Paul’s main thing with those who are not married, stay unmarried but if it is lawful or they are “loosed” if they are widow’s or unmarried men and woman who have fallen sexually and are “burning with passion” 1 Cor 7:8-9, or are “young widows” 1 Tim 5 and they are “desiring to marry”, or are “virgins” 1 Cor 7:27-28 or men who have been “loosed” to a wife, “let them marry”.
But if you are “bound” to a wife or “bound to the law of your husband” then “remain unmarried” God will give you the strength to over come all sin and not “lead you into temptation, but deliver you from evil” and will not “cause” you to “commit adultery” even if your spouse divorced you without knowledge of sexual immorality. God will give you the strength to remain single while it is a “sin” for you to remarry but if you can marry, stay single as long as you can and serve the Lord “whole heartedly”.
And as you can see in verse 38 Paul is talking about all “unmarried’s” both men and women in to ‘not giving in marriage does better’. So, Paul starting out in verse 35 speaking to both men and woman and ending with a conclusion in verse 38 to both men and women the two verses in between would seem to have substance as Paul would be addressing both the man and woman who are “unmarried” or “virgins”. But this is just a conclusion but thought or something to dwell on. But both men and woman are called “virgins” Rev 14:4 and 1 Cor 7:34.
What does anonymous comments have to do with Rick's post?
i am going to have to agree with the majority of the other statements regarding the Jesus mural in the last post and say that yes, it should most definitely be refurbished to its original form and not be changed to portray a more "accurate" depiction of our Savior
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